VT-10 Primary INAV Ground School Instrument 3 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Date on the DD-1801 is based on which time?
• If the outbound leg on a hold is longer than 1 minute, what drift correction should you use after flying 1 minute?
• For 45/180 Procedure turns, how long should the outbound leg be flown?
• Where can you find the official definitions of GPS navigation terms?
• When preparing an approach request, what combination best describes required content?
• Information regarding arresting gear is located in which publication?
• If you change destination, switch from VFR to IFR, or change routing en route, what must you do?
• For planning a mission in the United States, which reference provides supplementary airfield information?
• Which statement about the T-6A aircraft is true?
• Time should be rounded to the nearest what, fuel rounded to the nearest what, and distance rounded to the nearest what?
• When are you required to report airspeed changes to Center?
• For a procedure turn, the initial outbound leg distance is marked by which DME?
• What does the restriction "RADAR REQUIRED" imply when planning an alternate?
• When should the DRAFT report to the IP be offered?
• Regarding Lost Communications, what is the altitude that should be maintained?
• When flying an ASR approach, the MAP is defined by what?
• When reading clearance back to ATC, you should read back what information?
• During an instrument approach, if ATC instructs you to contact Tower at the FAF, what should you report?
• Which statement about jet route altitude ranges is true?
• In Point to Point navigation, if proceeding to a fix and the DME increases, roll your heading closer to which needles head?
• What are the airspeeds from IAF to FAF?
• For Point to Points, if proceeding to a fix with a larger DME, roll your heading closer to the _________ Needle Head.
• Before enroute descent for an approach, what information should you check in with ATC?
• Which source would you consult to determine the fuel type information for an airfield?
• Alternate "Profile I" plan is to fly from _____ to ____ at ______ feet
• Which type of Approach Brief is used for GCA approaches?
• Which of the following is NOT a criterion for calculating Ground Speed?
• When moving to a new controller, what is the correct sequence of actions with the frequency?
• When should ATIS be copied for the Destination airport?
• The Terminal Change Notice (TCN) is used to amend which items?
• Which type of call includes the distance remaining at each 1000-foot marker (board) and is made until 40 knots airspeed is acquired?
• If you fly 8 DME in one minute, what is your approximate ground speed in knots?
• Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA) is depicted on charts in which format?
• Which term describes a restriction on the usable range of a NAVAID as indicated by L and T symbols?
• If you must descend at the IAF on a procedure track, when should you begin your descent?
• What is required to be read back to the controller when operating in a radar pattern?
• From March to November, what is the UTC time offset for Pensacola, and how do we translate that to UTC/Zulu Time?
• Altitude warnings for descents outside the FAF are given when?
• The DD Form 1801 is used for all flights within the US and for flights from the US to Canada.
• Solid black triangle indicating compulsory position reports appears on which chart type?
• The DRAFT report includes which elements?
• In Point to Point navigation, you must TIM the station and set CDI to the desired ________.
• For a Northeast-bound route, the cruising altitude should be which parity?
• Minimum Safe Altitudes provide how many feet of terrain/obstacle clearance within how many nautical miles?
• Do all localizer antennas provide DME?
• When should you perform the Descent Checklist?
• If the holding fix is a VOR, you are abeam the fix when the aircraft passes a radial ____ off the holding course radial.
• If destination weather is 0-0 up to but not including published minimums, what alternate airfield weather is required for preflight filing?
• For ILS approaches, when shall you set BAC and complete Before Landing Checklist?
• Which publication contains the GPS navigation terms and definitions used in flight operations?
• Start the descent when the pilot chooses, using any rate of descent and leveling off at an intermediate altitude. This describes which type of descent?
• In the notation 280 (L) 72, what does the letter L signify?
• Circling Airspeed for CAT E is
• On High Altitude enroute charts, airports have at least one hard surfaced runway with a minimum runway length of how many feet?
• If no transmissions are received on PAR FINAL while vectored, you should wait for how many seconds before attempting contact?
• For cruising altitudes, which parity is used when flying Southwest?
• The FLIP GP document provides information about what?
• What on the Approach plate is used to aid pilots during landing transition by helping to identify the runway environment?
• What altitude is specified for the Alternate Profile I plan?
• What does an airport depicted in Brown on an Enroute Chart indicate?
• In IMC, when circling is not authorized, the minimums are expressed as 1000-3. What does the 3 represent?
• Pilots shall not file through areas for which a WW has been issued unless storm development has not progressed as forecasted and verified by DOD forecaster/FSS. What condition allows filing anyway?
• Timing for a Procedure Turn begins when?
• Which factor is NOT included in determining the minima for commencing an approach?
• Which holding entry technique involves a teardrop path?
• When transitioning from one Victor airway to another, should you lead your turn?
• What is identified by a 'v' on the Profile View?
• When filing for a drop-in approach at an airport that has numbers as their ICAO, how is it entered on the ROUTE OF FLIGHT?
• Where do you find airport/field info?
• If the local Pensacola time is 3:00 PM in November through March, what is the corresponding UTC time?
• Circling Airspeed for CAT C is
• Which drift correction technique is used when flying holds?
• In a Localizer Back Course approach, the CDI must be set to the reciprocal of the APP CRS course. Which box on the approach chart provides this course?
• BINGO is measured from which to which?
• Which of the following is not a type of Approach Brief?
• Which statement best describes the effect of unexpected weather, NAVAID outages, or aircraft malfunctions on flight clearance?
• If no transmissions are received on ASR FINAL while vectored, you should wait for how many seconds before attempting contact?
• What provides 1000 feet of terrain/obstacle clearance within 25 NM?
• Holding timing is 1 minute below 14,000 feet and 1.5 minutes above 14,000 feet.
• (L) and (T) symbols on a high altitude enroute chart refer to a NAVAID having a ___________ on its usable range.
• Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) on a chart is depicted by which of the following?
• OROCA's provide only ___________ clearance.
• The EET entry on the DD 1801 stands for Estimated Enroute Time. Which statement best describes EET's purpose?
• White Triangle on a Low En Route Chart depicts what?
• For GCAs, when should the approach brief normally be initiated?
• For preflight planning at an alternate, you must add to the published minimums for nonprecision approaches which value?
• A flag with an "X" in it is what?
• MCA stands for which term?
• Ground Speed calculation requires you to be outside of what range?
• The takeoff time on the DD-1801 is based on what time?
• In IMC, vectored for a GCA approach, and you lose all communications before receiving lost comms instructions, how should you fly?
• Circling Airspeed for CAT B is
• The publication that provides standardized departure procedures (DPs) is found in which source?
• Which altitude provides 1000 feet of terrain clearance within 25 nautical miles?
• Which statement correctly describes the Maximum Authorized Altitude notation on charts?
• If you plan to fly an alternate airfield approach/practice approach and wish to prepare your DRAFT report before the IAF, you should subtract how many pounds from the current fuel to estimate your fuel at the divert initiation?
• In Case 1 scenario for Flight Planning for Alternates, what is the required alternate minimum when destination ETA +/- 1 hr is 0-0 up to but not including published mins (not less than 200-½)?
• VOR approaches are usually associated with which teardrop type?
• What time is used for your TOTAL EET on your 1801?
• What does the acronym FETL stand for in the Holding Brief?
• Before you initiate a descent on the inbound leg of a HILO approach, you must be established on the _________ course
• If a DRAFT report is required, which briefing should occur first?
• Which statement best describes the four Ground Speed criteria?
• In Case 2, what must the alternate minima include?
• If DME is not available for the outbound leg of a 45/180 PT, what timing should you use?
• Ground Speed calculation requires flight in what regime?
• Reserve fuel endurance is 20 minutes.
• If you experience lost communications in VMC conditions, are you required to land at the nearest suitable airport?
• NAVAIDs that do not have a radio class symbol are assumed to be which category?
• If you are doing a Practice Approach, what information do you count on your flight log?
• To determine if an airfield has an into-plane fuel contract, reference which resource or contact?
• Which resource would you use to verify field contract fuel availability?
• During pre-flight planning, weather minimums at the ETA should be accounted for which of the following?
• If an airfield has numbers or does not have 4 characters, how are the put into the ROUTE OF FLIGHT block on an 1801?
• On an airway, where does the NAVAID changeover point occur?
• For Point to Points, if proceeding to a fix with a smaller DME, roll your heading closer to the _______ Pointer Head.
• When should you slow down to 120-150 KIAS on approach?
• Where do you find Radar Approach Minimums?
• What symbol indicates GPS-derived MEA on en-route charts?
• If told to not acknowledge further transmissions on a GCA approach, what is the exception?
• If destination weather meets published minimums but not 3000-3, alternate weather for non-precision must be ____________ and precision must be _______
• During a circling maneuver, what airspeed is flown on final and what is the radius of clearance?
• From 3000 feet remaining to 1000 feet remaining, runway centerlights are which pattern?
• What are the three entry procedures into a holding pattern?
• If a controller issues a clearance to climb and maintain to an altitude different from the DP, you should continue the DP route and _________ all of the remaining DP altitude restrictions.
• How can you recognize a HILO procedure turn approach?
• In Case 2 scenario for Flight Planning for Alternates, what is the alternate requirement when destination ETA +/- 1 hr is published mins (at least 200-½) up to but not including 3000-3?
• If you are flying a low altitude procedure turn approach, can you begin the course reversal at any point?
• In the 1801 annotation for changes to airspeed or altitude during the route of flight, what does the middle segment indicate?
• Where can you find Instrument Penetration Approaches?
• If you have at least ZERO pounds of Spare fuel, can you legally fly your route under conditions expected in preflight planning?
• Which altitude is designated as the uncontrolled ejection altitude for warnings outside the FAF?
• How many pounds of fuel represent CNAF's 20 minute flight at maximum endurance airspeed at 10,000 feet?
• How can you determine if a field has contract fuel for military aircraft?
• Circling Airspeed for CAT D is
• The NAVAID changeover point is depicted by which symbol?
• When do you raise the landing gear on takeoff?
• During a 45/180 Procedure turn maneuver, how long should you time the 45-degree leg before turning 180 degrees to intercept inbound course?
• Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA) is depicted on a chart by which feature?
• From November to March, what is the UTC offset for Pensacola, and how do you convert local time to UTC?
• If no weather forecast is available for a specific airport, can you plan or file for that location?
• You can legally file to a destination having forecast weather of ______ +/- 1 hour of your ETA?
• Which of the following scenarios can lead to a change in your in-flight clearance, either at your request or by ATC?
• The Z symbol with numbers on top and bottom on a chart depicts which of the following?
• Victor Routes on a chart are identified by which letter?
• What are the three types of orbits in a holding pattern?
• Which item is not among the three that update FLIP planning documents?
• Along with the DP, NAVAIDS, and Fixes; you should add named or unnamed fixes or points with greater than how many degrees of course change to define the route in your Jet Log?
• What is the default holding pattern turn direction when not specified?
• What is the clearance distance specified for circling maneuvers?
• If your heading is within 90 degrees of the outbound penetration course on a radial/straight-in approach, you are not required to overfly the IAF and may use normal lead points to intercept the course. Within how many degrees is this true?
• The 20-minute CNAF fuel requirement is based on maximum endurance airspeed at an altitude of what?
• Which departure type uses radar vectors to begin navigation until you can maintain the cleared route using on-board navigation systems?
• Which flight level is listed as a warning threshold for descents outside the FAF?
• Which of the following correctly completes the flight planning values for Start/Taxi/Takeoff, climb to 12,000', and per-approach fuel?
• Circling Airspeed for CAT A is
• Where can you find the Airport Diagram information?
• Height Above Airport (HAA) is associated with which type of instrument approaches?
• What is the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined by a NAVAID?
• From the threshold to 3000 feet remaining, runway centerlights are which color?
• The EET entry on the DD 1801 for an IFR flight is the total of which time?
• During holding over a VOR, abeam is achieved when the aircraft crosses the radial offset of which value from the holding course?
• Who is authorized to sign a flight plan?
• The following statement is true or false: The T-6A is considered a 'single-piloted' aircraft regardless of crew.
• What are the airspeed and configuration for Final Approach Course?
• When flying GPS approaches, which minimums may be used?
• Which item is NOT listed among required IFR equipment prior to takeoff in controlled airspace?
• Which type of Approach Brief is used for Radar Vectors?
• What does an airport depicted in Green on an Enroute Chart indicate?
• Which type of Approach Brief is used for ILS, PAR, ASR, VOR, or LOC approaches?
• If you have major changes to your flight plan enroute, what can you expect from ATC?
• On charts, which route type is identified by the letter V?
• On a low altitude enroute chart, an airfield depicted with a brown symbol indicates what?
• Which resource would you use to verify into-plane fuel contract information for a field?
• Altitude Warnings for Climbs are given when?
• When should you initiate the first Time Hack?
• In a Procedure Turn, you will overfly the IAF if the aircraft heading is greater than how many degrees from the outbound course?
• The takeoff time on the DD-1801 is based on what time standard?
• For Localizer Back Course approaches, what must you set in the CDI?
• In a radar pattern, aside from assigned headings and altitudes, what other item must be read back?
• True or False: Changing your TAS by +/- 5% or 10 Knots is a required report to ATC.
• Glide slope helps maintain the proper approach angle, which is normally between which two values in degrees?
• For preflight planning at an alternate, you must add to the published minimums for precision approaches which value?
• What does 0-0 indicate in weather minimums?
• TW-6 SOP states that T/O in conditions less than standard minimums _______ authorized unless approved by TW-6
• For the Departure/Destination/Alternate Aerodrome block on an 1801, insert _____ if the LOCID contains a number, no LOCID assigned, or not known
• In order to calculate Ground Speed, you must be on what navigational feature?
• When requesting radar departure, ATC will provide routing to the first point on your flight plan in the form of what?
• There is no T/O ceiling or visibility restrictions for Pilots who have a _________ instrument rating
• What is the equation used when leading a turn from an arc?
• What is the minimum final approach speed?
• In the 1801 annotation GEO/N0270/A045, what does N0270 denote?
• If there is no FAF on a low altitude procedure turn approach, where should you consider the FAF?
• Glide slope angle is typically between 2.5 and 3 degrees.
• Altitude warnings for descents inside the FAF are given when?
• To determine the type of fuel available at an airfield, you should reference which document?
• Which FLIP document contains specific information on maximum holding speeds, holding patterns, and how controllers will issue holding instructions?
• An airport depicted on an Enroute Chart with Brown color has which minima status?
• In the 1801 notation GEO/N0270/A045, what does GEO represent?
• What is the minimum airspeed to use when circling to land on an instrument approach?
• Which type of departures provide heading and altitudes to fly until capable of maintaining your cleared flight route using on-board navigation systems?
• What is the minimum runway length for normal T-6 Ops?
• Holding timing begins when you are outbound and abeam the holding fix, or wings level if unable to determine abeam.
• In the Alternate profile I plan, what are the two endpoints called?
• In the last 1000 feet of runway remaining, runway centerlights are which color?
• What is the minimum fuel required to be onboard upon arrival at Destination IAF, to comply with CNAF fuel requirements to be able to fly to/land at an alternate?
• For any ETA changes, when must you notify ATC?
• The DA/DH for a PAR approach is determined by which combination?
• Advise the pilot for deviations more than ____ ft off assigned altitudes, _____ KIAS off assigned airspeed, or ____ degrees off assigned heading.
• Which feature identifies OROCA on a navigation chart?
• When do you configure to BAC on a GCA approach?
• Arrange the departure planning events in the proper order: 1) Obtain ATIS, 2) Field Brief, 3) Time Hack, 4) Contact Tower.
• When using a feeder route to the IAF, to what altitude are you permitted to descend?
• T/F: Not all airfields depicted in Green on a Low Altitude Enroute Chart have an approved IAP and/or RADMIN in the DOD FLIPS?
• Which statement about using the 1801 form for flights is true?
• MOCA's provide ___ NM of NAVAID reception between NAVAIDs while having ______' Obstacle and ______' Mountain Clearance
• Where would you find information regarding arresting gear used in flight operations?
• Which instruction best describes how to handle a loss of comms when vectored for a GCA approach?
• OROCA's provide _____ Obstacle and _____ Mountain Clearance with no Guarantee of NAVAID reception
• The localizer signal is useable and accurate out to a range of ___ NM from the antenna
• GPS provides highly accurate position and velocity information, and precise time, on a global basis. How is the GPS system affected by weather?
• In the Airport ID notation 280 (L) 72, what does the 72 represent?
• According to the FAR/AIM, you should report the ______ and _________ upon reaching a holding fix to ATC.
• In a PAR approach, how is the DA/DH determined?
• When flying in a radar pattern downwind, maintain _____ to ____ KIAS in what type of configuration?
• When are you considered established in the holding pattern?
• A brown symbol on a low altitude enroute chart indicates that the airfield does not have what?
• How are enroute delays annotated on the Route of Flight on an 1801?
• To execute a missed approach while circling to land from a VOR, start climbing towards the ________.
• When performing an approach, what two criteria must be met in order to land?
• What information do you need to calculate your ground speed?
• To do a Practice Approach at a Drop-In Airfield, what type of flight plan should you file?
• On a NoPT approach, which maneuver is not permitted?
• After you provide AIR to Approach, you should include what into your request?
• The minimum runway length for normal T-6 Ops applies to which surface condition?
• What is the final decision point for determining if you have the required weather for takeoff on an IFR flight plan?
• Which flag indicates Minimum Crossing Altitude or Minimum Turning Altitude?
• Which sequence best describes the order of briefing items if a holding is planned?
• Should you still place an entry for an alternate on your flight log when the case indicates no alternate is required?
• Minimum Enroute Altitudes (MEA) provide ______ of Obstacle Clearance and _____ of Mountain Clearance and guarantees NAVAID reception between _____ NAVAIDS
• Which chart symbol denotes non-compulsory position reports?
• What provides 1000' of terrain/obstacle clearance and 2000' in mountainous terrain AND can be less than the MEA/MOCA?
• If you are flying a DP, the controller gives you a new heading that takes you off the Departure Procedure transition without any additional info; is the DP considered cancelled?
• What is the minimum speed on final?
• For Ground Speed calculation, IAS must be set for TAS.
• What is the lowest altitude which Navigational fix can be crossed while climbing to meet the MEA on the next airway?
• When planning for an alternate airfield, what symbol and restrictions would be a dead give away on the approach plate Briefing section that you cannot use it as an alternate airfield?
• MCF stands for what in CNAF fuel planning?
• Which statement is true about the relationship between localizers and DME?
• Information on Special Use Airspace such as MOAs is found in which document?
• When requesting radar departure on the 1801, where is the instruction placed and how should it read?
• Minimum Safe Altitudes provide 1000 feet of clearance within 25 NM. Which of the following best describes this statement?
• On a PAR/ASR, you are being guided by which and not a which?
• Which form is used to file the initial leg of a STOPOVER flight?
• What is the takeoff minimum expression for non-precision and precision operations under Standard Instrument Rating?
• If you are given a different altitude by ATC than that depicted by the DP, should you consider the DP canceled?
• Regarding Approach Criteria, when commencing, approach minima shall be no less than which combination?
• What is the best practice to ensure TAS is used in the Ground Speed calculation?
• What weather minimums do you need to do a drop in practice approach?
• If you are not provided with specific turns on a holding pattern, what type of turns should you execute?
• If runway is not in sight at the VDP or MDA, do you execute a missed approach?
• MOCA stands for which of the following?
• Lead all turns greater than 30 degrees except for what three events?
• If you are using a feeder route to the IAF and cleared for the approach, you are considered ______ on the approach and you can ______ to the altitude depicted on the feeder route.
• What formula is used to calculate VDP?
• To calculate Ground Speed, which four conditions must be met?
• A white 'T' in a black upside-down triangle indicates that takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.
• For IFR flights in controlled airspace, which equipment must be operable prior to takeoff?
• Which case number describes a scenario where an alternate must be filed despite not needing it, yet it remains on the flight log?
• How are GPS MEA's depicted on the chart?
• At what point is a missed approach authorized if the runway is not in sight?
• Low altitude approach procedures ensure ________ clearance and ____________ from other IFR aircraft.
• To locate altimeter changeover procedures, what is the best starting point?
• In triple drift correction, you triple the inbound course correction and switch to the opposite left or right when going on the outbound course. What are the two course segments involved?
• When do you use the 1801-C?
• If no holding is required, the approach brief should be given when?
• What is another name for UTC used in aviation timekeeping?
• Regarding Lost Communications, what is the priority for heading to be maintained?
• Where in ForeFlight would you access Radar Minimums for radar approaches?
• MOCA's specify NAVAID reception distance between NAVAIDs as what value?
• Which element is the first in the FETL mnemonic?
• According to CNAF 3710, reserve fuel shall be a percentage of planned fuel requirements.
• For T/O minimums with Standard Instrument Rating, Non-Precision T/O minimums must be ___-__ and for Precision must be ___-__ or _____' RVR
• Initial OPS Check _____ be performed immediately after checking in with Departure, safety of flight permitting. Subsequent OPS checks are __________ to be initiated after each wings level call.
• What information is given for the Holding Brief, and what mnemonic is used?
• What is the standard final approach airspeed used during circling maneuvers?
• When should the Holding Brief be given?
• When should you provide a Missed Approach Review and MAP/Climbout instructions?
• Timing at the FAF begins when?
• In a holding pattern, establishment occurs at the moment you pass which point for the first time?
• For the DRAFT adjustment, subtract 50 pounds from current fuel to estimate fuel at divert initiation. Which of the following is true?
• Which altitude thresholds are included in the outside FAF warning list aside from FL180?
• What is the holding airspeed?
• MOCA's provide obstacle clearance and acceptable navigation signal coverage within ___ NM of the NAVAID.
• What range should you maintain on the downwind leg in a radar pattern?
• Within 3 minutes of the holding fix, you should slow to what KIAS?
• PIREP Information/Format, Runway Condition Reading, Braking Action, and Approach Lighting configurations can all be found in which Publication?
• If ATC issues a new heading off a DP transition with no extra information, the DP is considered canceled.
• Between successive points on the ROUTE OF FLIGHT on the 1801, what is placed?
• What is the typical ATC response when there are major changes to your enroute flight plan?
• If you lose comms while taxiing to the runway and see flashing white light signals, what should you do?
• A flag with an "R" in it is what?
• What does 'NoPT' mean?
• Traffic Advisories are a (Mandatory / Non Mandatory) service provided by controllers to aircraft operating in the radar pattern.
• Which statement best describes who can sign a filed flight plan?
• Altitudes published on a terminal/feeder routes provide the same obstacle protection as an ______.
• If circling is not authorized with a two plane formation departure into IMC, ceiling and vis must be at least ____?
• What does the DRAFT report stand for?
• Which statement is correct regarding alternate planning adjustments to minima?
• Reserve fuel endurance is specified at what altitude?
• If holding is required, the approach brief can be given when?
• When requesting radar departure, you will receive which of the following to the first point listed on your flight plan?
• At what point during the en route phase should the Field Brief be given?
• Which document contains information on Special Use Airspace such as MOAs for flight planning?
• Solid Black Triangle on a Low En Route Chart depicts what?
• Can a single-piloted aircraft use PAR, ASR, RADAR-Required Approaches for Alternate Airfield Planning?
• GPS Routes on a chart are identified by which color?
• What area is always shown to scale on an Instrument Approach Plate?
• The 1801-C is designed to accommodate how many additional legs/stopovers?
• When determining EFR at IAF for the practice drop in approach, what should you do with the total EFR number?
• In the 1801 annotation GEO/N0270/A045, what does A045 denote?
• Are radar vectors provided by a Published DP?
• Which statement best describes BINGO measurement?
• Where can you locate the formatted guide for changing flight plans in-flight?
• While being vectored on Radar Vectors, you should contact ATC if no transmissions are received for how long?
• EET on the 1801 should be listed as which format?
• What is the primary purpose of a Jet Log?
• Jet Routes on a navigation chart are identified by which letter?
• As you approach the IAF with a heading within 90 degrees of the initial course, you do not have to overfly the IAF and may use normal lead points to intercept the published course. This statement is true.
• In CNAF fuel planning, the fuel amount is expressed in which unit?
• FLIP planning documents are updated by what three things?
• When handed to a new controller, what shall you do?
• For VOR approaches, you will use either _____ or _______ to determine arrival at the FAF.
• In Case 3 scenario for Flight Planning for Alternates, what is true?
• Which two instruments are used to confirm two positive rates of climb for gear retraction?
• If destination weather is 3000-3 or better, is alternate filing required?
• Takeoff Time on the 1801 is based on what time?
• What is the spare fuel requirement for the T-6A to legally fly?
• Which of the following best describes the intercept lead-point technique near the initial approach course when within 90 degrees of the initial course?
• In enroute delay notation ABY/D00+20, what does DHH+MM indicate?
• Which flag indicates Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA)?
• Which feature on an Instrument Approach Plate is used to identify the runway environment during the landing transition?
• Which book contains amendments to SIDs and Terminal High/Low Altitude volumes?
• When approaching the IAF, if your heading is within 90 degrees of the initial course, you may use normal lead points to intercept the published course.
• After liftoff during an ITO, you should be committed to attitude instrument flying procedures due to potential for what?
• What is the one exception to the Approach Criteria requirement?
• For ILS approaches, the point where you execute a missed approach is the ___________.
• Where do you find published DPs?
• Where can you find the formatted guide for changing flight plans in-flight?
• The profile view symbol 'v' denotes Visual Descent Point.
• What is the standard action when on the ground with flashing white light signals?
• Jet route altitudes start at what altitude and go up to what flight level?
• What type of taxi is requested from Ground at unfamiliar airfields?
• When flying no-gyro vectors, you must acknowledge the controller directives until when?
• On an ASR approach, the location of the Missed Approach Point (MAP) is defined by which entity?
• Which symbol identifies the maneuvering side of a procedure turn?
• If you have less than zero pounds of spare fuel, your flight plan is considered illegal and must be changed.